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I sold some wheels and tires to a private buyer and now 4 days later he's claiming that one wheel is bent/damaged and its my responsibility to replace it for him. Is this at all true? I was always told that sales between private parties are "as is" unless otherwise agreed upon. Am I wrong? Is there somewhere I can get this information in official documents as proof that I am right or wrong? Keep in mind the deal was settled in cash with no written receipt exchanged.
Thank you for any input.
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Members who have read Sale of used car parts between private parties, obligations and liabilities.