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A friend let her husband move in after the divorce because he was on disability awaiting knee surgery.
Over a year later he is not back to work, has no income and will not so much as pick up their son after school.
Her lawyer has advised her that she has no recourse and could lose all over again as if it were a second divorce simply because she has allowed him to live there.
I don't think he has squatters rights after as little time as 1 year. Is this correct?
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